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CompTIA CS0-003 認定試験の出題範囲：
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質問 # 63
There are several reports of sensitive information being disclosed via file sharing services. The company would like to improve its security posture against this threat. Which of the following security controls would best support the company in this scenario?
- A. Improve employee training and awareness
- B. Deploy mobile device management
- C. Increase password complexity standards
- D. Implement step-up authentication for administrators
正解：A
解説：
Explanation
The best security control to implement against sensitive information being disclosed via file sharing services is to improve employee training and awareness. Employee training and awareness can help educate employees on the risks and consequences of using file sharing services for sensitive information, as well as the policies and procedures for handling such information securely and appropriately. Employee training and awareness can also help foster a security culture and encourage employees to report any incidents or violations of information security.
質問 # 64
After identifying a threat, a company has decided to implement a patch management program to remediate vulnerabilities. Which of the following risk management principles is the company exercising?
- A. Mitigate
- B. Accept
- C. Avoid
- D. Transfer
正解：A
解説：
Explanation
Mitigate is the best term to describe the risk management principle that the company is exercising, as it means to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk. By implementing a patch management program to remediate vulnerabilities, the company is mitigating the threat of cyberattacks that could exploit those vulnerabilities and compromise the security or functionality of the systems. The other terms are not as accurate as mitigate, as they describe different risk management principles. Transfer means to shift the responsibility or burden of a risk to another party, such as an insurer or a contractor. Accept means to acknowledge the existence of a risk and decide not to take any action to reduce it, usually because the risk is low or the cost of mitigation is too high. Avoid means to eliminate the possibility of a risk by changing the plans or activities that could cause it, such as cancelling a project or discontinuing a service.
質問 # 65
Joe, a leading sales person at an organization, has announced on social media that he is leaving his current role to start a new company that will compete with his current employer. Joe is soliciting his current employer's customers. However, Joe has not resigned or discussed this with his current supervisor yet. Which of the following would be the best action for the incident response team to recommend?
- A. Perform no action until HR or legal counsel advises on next steps
- B. Reimage the PC based on standard operating procedures
- C. Initiate a remote wipe of Joe's PC using mobile device management
- D. Isolate Joe's PC from the network
正解：A
解説：
Explanation
The best action for the incident response team to recommend in this scenario is to perform no action until HR or legal counsel advises on next steps. This action can help avoid any potential legal or ethical issues, such as violating employee privacy rights, contractual obligations, or organizational policies. This action can also help ensure that any evidence or information collected from the employee's system or network is admissible and valid in case of any legal action or dispute. The incident response team should consult with HR or legal counsel before taking any action that may affect the employee's system or network.
質問 # 66
A security analyst has found the following suspicious DNS traffic while analyzing a packet capture:
* DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active.
* The mean time between queries is less than one second.
* The average query length exceeds 100 characters.
Which of the following attacks most likely occurred?
- A. DNS zone transfer
- B. DNS poisoning
- C. DNS exfiltration
- D. DNS spoofing
正解：C
解説：
Explanation
DNS exfiltration is a technique that uses the DNS protocol to transfer data from a compromised network or device to an attacker-controlled server. DNS exfiltration can bypass firewall rules and security products that do not inspect DNS traffic. The characteristics of the suspicious DNS traffic in the question match the indicators of DNS exfiltration, such as:
DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active: This implies that the DNS protocol is being used to create a covert channel for data transfer.
The mean time between queries is less than one second: This implies that the DNS queries are being sent at a high frequency to maximize the amount of data transferred.
The average query length exceeds 100 characters: This implies that the DNS queries are encoding large amounts of data in the subdomains or other fields of the DNS packets.
Official References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/bypassing-security-products-via-dns-data-exfiltration/
https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/nvjuzt/dns_exfiltration_explanation/
質問 # 67
A security technician is testing a solution that will prevent outside entities from spoofing the company's email domain, which is compatia.org. The testing is successful, and the security technician is prepared to fully implement the solution. Which of the following actions should the technician take to accomplish this task?
- A. Add : XT @ "v=spfl mx include:_spf.comptia.org -all" to the email server.
- B. Add TXT @ "v=spfl mx include:_spf.comptia. org -all" to the DNS record.
- C. Add TXT @ "v=spfl mx include:_spf.comptia.org +all" to the domain controller.
- D. AddTXT @ "v=apfl mx lnclude:_spf .comptia.org +a 11" to the web server.
正解：B
解説：
Adding TXT @ "v=spfl mx include:_spf.comptia. org -all" to the DNS record can help to prevent outside entities from spoofing the company's email domain, which is comptia.org. This is an example of a Sender Policy Framework (SPF) record, which is a type of DNS record that specifies which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of a domain. SPF records can help to prevent spoofing by allowing the recipient mail servers to check the validity of the sender's domain against the SPF record. The "-all" at the end of the SPF record indicates that any mail server that is not listed in the SPF record is not authorized to send email for comptia.org .
質問 # 68
An organization enabled a SIEM rule to send an alert to a security analyst distribution list when ten failed logins occur within one minute. However, the control was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins.
Which of the following best represents what occurred?
- A. True negative
- B. False positive
- C. False negative
- D. True positive
正解：C
解説：
Explanation
The correct answer is C. False negative.
A false negative is a situation where an attack or a threat is not detected by a security control, even though it should have been. In this case, the SIEM rule was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins, which is below the threshold of ten failed logins that triggers an alert. This means that the SIEM rule missed a potential attack and failed to alert the security analysts, resulting in a false negative.
A false positive is a situation where a benign or normal activity is detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, even though it is not. A true negative is a situation where a benign or normal activity is not detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, as expected. A true positive is a situation where an attack or a threat is detected by a security control, as expected. These are not the correct answers for this question.
質問 # 69
After completing a review of network activity. the threat hunting team discovers a device on the network that sends an outbound email via a mail client to a non-company email address daily at 10:00 p.m. Which of the following is potentially occurring?
- A. Irregular peer-to-peer communication
- B. Data exfiltration
- C. Abnormal OS process behavior
- D. Rogue device on the network
正解：B
解説：
Data exfiltration is the theft or unauthorized transfer or movement of data from a device or network. It can occur as part of an automated attack or manually, on-site or through an internet connection, and involve various methods. It can affect personal or corporate data, such as sensitive or confidential information. Data exfiltration can be prevented or detected by using compression, encryption, authentication, authorization, and other controls1 The network activity shows that a device on the network is sending an outbound email via a mail client to a non-company email address daily at 10:00 p.m. This could indicate that the device is compromised by malware or an insider threat, and that the email is used to exfiltrate data from the network to an external party. The email could contain attachments, links, or hidden data that contain the stolen information. The timing of the email could be designed to avoid detection by normal network monitoring or security systems.
質問 # 70
Which of the following best describes the goal of a disaster recovery exercise as preparation for possible incidents?
- A. To perform tests against implemented security controls
- B. To provide recommendations for handling vulnerabilities
- C. TO provide metrics and test continuity controls
- D. To verify the roles of the incident response team
正解：C
解説：
Explanation
The correct answer is A. To provide metrics and test continuity controls.
A disaster recovery exercise is a simulation or a test of the disaster recovery plan, which is a set of procedures and resources that are used to restore the normal operations of an organization after a disaster or a major incident. The goal of a disaster recovery exercise is to provide metrics and test continuity controls, which are the measures that ensure the availability and resilience of the critical systems and processes of an organization.
A disaster recovery exercise can help evaluate the effectiveness, efficiency, and readiness of the disaster recovery plan, as well as identify and address any gaps or issues .
The other options are not the best descriptions of the goal of a disaster recovery exercise. Verifying the roles of the incident response team (B) is a goal of an incident response exercise, which is a simulation or a test of the incident response plan, which is a set of procedures and roles that are used to detect, contain, analyze, and remediate an incident. Providing recommendations for handling vulnerabilities is a goal of a vulnerability assessment, which is a process of identifying and prioritizing the weaknesses and risks in an organization's systems or network. Performing tests against implemented security controls (D) is a goal of a penetration test, which is an authorized and simulated attack on an organization's systems or network to evaluate their security posture and identify any vulnerabilities or misconfigurations.
質問 # 71
A security analyst is logged on to a jump server to audit the system configuration and status. The organization's policies for access to and configuration of the jump server include the following:
* No network access is allowed to the internet.
* SSH is only for management of the server.
* Users must utilize their own accounts, with no direct login as an administrator.
* Unnecessary services must be disabled.
The analyst runs netstar with elevated permissions and receives the following output:
Which of the following policies does the server violate?
- A. SSH is only for management of the server.
- B. Unnecessary services must be disabled.
- C. Users must utilize their own accounts, with no direct login as an administrator.
- D. No network access is allowed to the internet.
正解：D
解説：
The server violates the policy of no network access to the internet because it has an established connection to an external IP address (216.58.194.174) on port 443, which is used for HTTPS traffic. This indicates that the server is communicating with a web server on the internet, which is not allowed by the policy. The other policies are not violated because SSH is only used for management of the server (not for accessing other devices), users are utilizing their own accounts (not logging in as an administrator), and unnecessary services are not enabled (only SSH and HTTPS are running). Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 9; https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jump_server
質問 # 72
An incident response team is working with law enforcement to investigate an active web server compromise.
The decision has been made to keep the server running and to implement compensating controls for a period of time. The web service must be accessible from the internet via the reverse proxy and must connect to a database server. Which of the following compensating controls will help contain the adversary while meeting the other requirements? (Select two).
- A. Stop the httpd service on the web server so that the adversary can not use web exploits
- B. Drop the tables on the database server to prevent data exfiltration.
- C. Deploy EDR on the web server and the database server to reduce the adversaries capabilities.
- D. Comment out the HTTP account in the / etc/passwd file of the web server
- E. use micro segmentation to restrict connectivity to/from the web and database servers.
- F. Move the database from the database server to the web server.
正解：C、E
解説：
Explanation
Deploying EDR on the web server and the database server to reduce the adversaries capabilities and using micro segmentation to restrict connectivity to/from the web and database servers are two compensating controls that will help contain the adversary while meeting the other requirements. A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or an attack when the primary control is not feasible or effective. EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response, which is a tool that monitors endpoints for malicious activity and provides automated or manual response capabilities. EDR can help contain the adversary by detecting and blocking their actions, such as data exfiltration, lateral movement, privilege escalation, or command execution. Micro segmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments based on policies and rules, and applies granular access controls to each segment. Micro segmentation can help contain the adversary by isolating the web and database servers from other parts of the network, and limiting the traffic that can flow between them. Official References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
質問 # 73
While performing a dynamic analysis of a malicious file, a security analyst notices the memory address changes every time the process runs. Which of the following controls is most likely preventing the analyst from finding the proper memory address of the piece of malicious code?
- A. Code obfuscation
- B. Data execution prevention
- C. Address space layout randomization
- D. Stack canary
正解：C
解説：
The correct answer is
A) Address space layout randomization.
Address space layout randomization (ASLR) is a security control that randomizes the memory address space of a process, making it harder for an attacker to exploit memory-based vulnerabilities, such as buffer overflows1. ASLR can also prevent a security analyst from finding the proper memory address of a piece of malicious code, as the memory address changes every time the process runs2.
The other options are not the best explanations for why the memory address changes every time the process runs. Data execution prevention (B) is a security control that prevents code from being executed in certain memory regions, such as the stack or the heap3. Stack canary is a security technique that places a random value on the stack before a function's return address, to detect and prevent stack buffer overflows. Code obfuscation (D) is a technique that modifies the source code or binary of a program to make it more difficult to understand or reverse engineer. These techniques do not affect the memory address space of a process, but rather the execution or analysis of the code.
質問 # 74
An incident response analyst notices multiple emails traversing the network that target only the administrators of the company. The email contains a concealed URL that leads to an unknown website in another country. Which of the following best describes what is happening? (Choose two.)
- A. Address Resolution Protocol poisoning
- B. On-path attack
- C. Beaconinq
- D. Obfuscated links
- E. Social engineering attack
- F. Domain Name System hijacking
正解：D、E
解説：
A social engineering attack is a type of cyberattack that relies on manipulating human psychology rather than exploiting technical vulnerabilities. A social engineering attack may involve deceiving, persuading, or coercing users into performing actions that benefit the attacker, such as clicking on malicious links, divulging sensitive information, or granting access to restricted resources. An obfuscated link is a link that has been disguised or altered to hide its true destination or purpose. Obfuscated links are often used by attackers to trick users into visiting malicious websites or downloading malware. In this case, an incident response analyst notices multiple emails traversing the network that target only the administrators of the company. The email contains a concealed URL that leads to an unknown website in another country. This indicates that the analyst is witnessing a social engineering attack using obfuscated links.
質問 # 75
Which of the following would help an analyst to quickly find out whether the IP address in a SIEM alert is a known-malicious IP address?
- A. Upload threat intelligence to the IPS in STIX/TAXII format.
- B. Add data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipleline.
- C. Review threat feeds after viewing the SIEM alert.
- D. Join an information sharing and analysis center specific to the company's industry.
正解：B
解説：
Explanation
The best option to quickly find out whether the IP address in a SIEM alert is a known-malicious IP address is C: Add data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline.
Data enrichment is the process of adding more information and context to raw data, such as IP addresses, by using external sources. Data enrichment can help analysts to gain more insights into the nature and origin of the threats they face, and to prioritize and respond to them accordingly. Data enrichment for IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) means that the IPS can use enriched data to block or alert on malicious traffic based on various criteria, such as geolocation, reputation, threat intelligence, or behavior. By adding data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline, analysts can leverage the IPS's capabilities to filter out known-malicious IP addresses before they reach the SIEM, or to tag them with relevant information for further analysis. This can save time and resources for the analysts, and improve the accuracy and efficiency of the SIEM.
The other options are not as effective or efficient as data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline. Joining an information sharing and analysis center (ISAC) specific to the company's industry (A) can provide valuable threat intelligence and best practices, but it may not be timely or comprehensive enough to cover all possible malicious IP addresses. Uploading threat intelligence to the IPS in STIX/TAXII format (B) can help the IPS to identify and block malicious IP addresses based on standardized indicators of compromise, but it may require manual or periodic updates and integration with the SIEM. Reviewing threat feeds after viewing the SIEM alert (D) can help analysts to verify and contextualize the malicious IP addresses, but it may be too late or too slow to prevent or mitigate the damage. Therefore, C is the best option among the choices given.
質問 # 76
After conducting a cybersecurity risk assessment for a new software request, a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) decided the risk score would be too high. The CISO refused the software request. Which of the following risk management principles did the CISO select?
- A. Accept
- B. Avoid
- C. Mitigate
- D. Transfer
正解：B
解説：
Avoid is a risk management principle that describes the decision or action of not engaging in an activity or accepting a risk that is deemed too high or unacceptable. Avoiding a risk can eliminate the possibility or impact of the risk, as well as the need for any further risk management actions. In this case, the CISO decided the risk score would be too high and refused the software request. This indicates that the CISO selected the avoid principle for risk management.
質問 # 77
A digital forensics investigator works from duplicate images to preserve the integrity of the original evidence. Which of the following types of media are most volatile and should be preserved? (Select two).
- A. Temporary filesystems
- B. SSD storage
- C. Swap volume
- D. Packet decoding
- E. Memory cache
- F. Registry file
正解：C、E
解説：
Memory cache and swap volume are types of media that are most volatile and should be preserved during a digital forensics investigation. Volatile media are those that store data temporarily and lose their contents when the power is turned off or interrupted. Memory cache is a small and fast memory that stores frequently used data or instructions for faster access by the processor. Swap volume is a part of the hard disk that is used as an extension of the memory when the memory is full or low .
質問 # 78
Which of the following best describes the process of requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame?
- A. Organizational governance
- B. SLA
- C. Best-effort patching
- D. MOU
正解：B
解説：
Explanation
An SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a contract or agreement between a service provider and a customer that defines the expected level of service, performance, quality, and availability of the service. An SLA also specifies the responsibilities, obligations, and penalties for both parties in case of non-compliance or breach of the agreement. An SLA can help organizations to ensure that their security services are delivered in a timely and effective manner, and that any security incidents or vulnerabilities are addressed and resolved within a specified time frame. An SLA can also help to establish clear communication, expectations, and accountability between the service provider and the customer12 An MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that expresses a mutual agreement or understanding between two or more parties on a common goal or objective. An MOU is not legally binding, but it can serve as a basis for future cooperation or collaboration. An MOU may not be suitable for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not have the same level of enforceability, specificity, or measurability as an SLA.
Best-effort patching is an informal and ad hoc approach to applying security patches or updates to systems or software. Best-effort patching does not follow any defined process, policy, or schedule, and relies on the availability and discretion of the system administrators or users. Best-effort patching may not be effective or efficient for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not guarantee that the patches are applied correctly, consistently, or promptly. Best-effort patching may also introduce new risks or vulnerabilities due to human error, compatibility issues, or lack of testing.
Organizational governance is the framework of rules, policies, procedures, and processes that guide and direct the activities and decisions of an organization. Organizational governance can help to establish the roles, responsibilities, and accountabilities of different stakeholders within the organization, as well as the goals, values, and principles that shape the organizational culture and behavior. Organizational governance can also help to ensure compliance with internal and external standards, regulations, and laws. Organizational governance may not be sufficient for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not specify the details or metrics of the service delivery or performance. Organizational governance may also vary depending on the size, structure, and nature of the organization.
質問 # 79
A cybersecurity team lead is developing metrics to present in the weekly executive briefs. Executives are interested in knowing how long it takes to stop the spread of malware that enters the network.
Which of the following metrics should the team lead include in the briefs?
- A. Mean time to remediate
- B. Mean time to detect
- C. Mean time to contain
- D. Mean time between failures
正解：C
解説：
Explanation
Mean time to contain is the metric that the cybersecurity team lead should include in the weekly executive briefs, as it measures how long it takes to stop the spread of malware that enters the network. Mean time to contain is the average time it takes to isolate and neutralize an incident or a threat, such as malware, from the time it is detected. Mean time to contain is an important metric for evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the incident response process, as well as the potential impact and damage of the incident or threat. A lower mean time to contain indicates a faster and more successful response, which can reduce the risk and cost of the incident or threat. Mean time to contain can also be compared with other metrics, such as mean time to detect or mean time to remediate, to identify gaps or areas for improvement in the incident response process.
質問 # 80
Approximately 100 employees at your company have received a Phishing email. AS a security analyst. you have been tasked with handling this Situation.
Review the information provided and determine the following:
1. HOW many employees Clicked on the link in the Phishing email?
2. on how many workstations was the malware installed?
3. what is the executable file name of the malware?
正解：
解説：
1. How many employees clicked on the link in the phishing email?
According to the email server logs, 25 employees clicked on the link in the phishing email.
2. On how many workstations was the malware installed?
According to the file server logs, the malware was installed on 15 workstations.
3. What is the executable file name of the malware?
The executable file name of the malware is svchost.EXE.
Answers
1. 25
2. 15
3. svchost.EXE
質問 # 81
A security analyst is reviewing the following log entries to identify anomalous activity:
Which of the following attack types is occurring?
- A. Directory traversal
- B. Cross-site scripting
- C. SQL injection
- D. Buffer overflow
正解：A
解説：
A directory traversal attack is a type of web application attack that exploits insufficient input validation or improper configuration to access files or directories that are outside the intended scope of the web server. The log entries given in the question show several requests that contain ".../" sequences in the URL, which indicate an attempt to move up one level in the directory structure. For example, the request "/images/.../.../etc/passwd" tries to access the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information on Linux systems. If successful, this attack could allow an attacker to read, modify, or execute files on the web server that are not meant to be accessible.
質問 # 82
Which of the following is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system?
- A. Number of exploits by tactic
- B. Mean time to detect
- C. Quantity of intrusion attempts
- D. Alert volume
正解：B
解説：
Mean time to detect (MTTD) is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system. MTTD is a metric that measures how long it takes to detect a security incident or threat from the time it occurs. MTTD can be improved by using tools and processes that can collect, correlate, analyze, and alert on security data from various sources. SIEM, SOAR, and ticketing systems are examples of such tools and processes that can help reduce MTTD and enhance security operations. Official Reference: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack
質問 # 83
An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report and must make recommendations to the executive team. The analyst finds that most systems can be upgraded with a reboot resulting in a single downtime window.
However, two of the critical systems cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance that the company does not have access to. Which of the following inhibitors to remediation do these systems and associated vulnerabilities best represent?
- A. Proprietary systems
- B. Legacy systems
- C. Unsupported operating systems
- D. Lack of maintenance windows
正解：A
解説：
Explanation
Proprietary systems are systems that are owned and controlled by a specific vendor or manufacturer, and that use proprietary standards or protocols that are not compatible with other systems. Proprietary systems can pose a challenge for vulnerability management, as they may not allow users to access or modify their configuration, update their software, or patch their vulnerabilities. In this case, two of the critical systems cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance that the company does not have access to. This indicates that these systems and associated vulnerabilities are examples of proprietary systems as inhibitors to remediation
質問 # 84
A security analyst is supporting an embedded software team. Which of the following is the best recommendation to ensure proper error handling at runtime?
- A. Enforce input validation.
- B. Require application fuzzing.
- C. Perform a code review.
- D. Perform static code analysis.
正解：C
解説：
Performing a code review is the best recommendation to ensure proper error handling at runtime for an embedded software team. A code review is a process of examining and evaluating source code by one or more developers other than the original author. A code review can help to identify and fix any errors, bugs, vulnerabilities, or inefficiencies in the code before it is deployed or executed. A code review can also help to ensure that the code follows the best practices, standards, and guidelines for error handling at runtime .
質問 # 85
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