最新のCS0-003実際の無料試験問題更新された305問あります
無料で使えるCS0-003試験ブレーン問題集認定ガイドの問題と解答
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質問 # 112
After a security assessment was done by a third-party consulting firm, the cybersecurity program recommended integrating DLP and CASB to reduce analyst alert fatigue. Which of the following is the best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve?
- A. Phishing alerts drop by 20%.
- B. SIEM ingestion logs are reduced by 20%.
- C. The MTTR decreases by 20%.
- D. False positive rates drop to 20%.
正解：C
解説：
The MTTR (Mean Time to Resolution) decreases by 20% is the best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve, as it reflects the improvement in the efficiency and effectiveness of the incident response process by reducing analyst alert fatigue. Analyst alert fatigue is a term that refers to the phenomenon of security analysts becoming overwhelmed, desensitized, or exhausted by the large number of alerts they receive from various security tools or systems, such as DLP (Data Loss Prevention) or CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker). DLP is a security solution that helps to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data, such as personal information, intellectual property, or financial records. CASB is a security solution that helps to monitor and control the use of cloud-based applications and services, such as SaaS (Software as a Service), PaaS (Platform as a Service), or IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service). Both DLP and CASB can generate alerts when they detect potential data breaches, policy violations, or malicious activities, but they can also produce false positives, irrelevant information, or duplicate notifications that can overwhelm or distract the security analysts. Analyst alert fatigue can have negative consequences for the security posture and performance of an organization, such as missing or ignoring critical alerts, delaying or skipping investigations or remediations, making errors or mistakes, or losing motivation or morale. Therefore, it is important to reduce analyst alert fatigue and optimize the alert management process by using various strategies, such as tuning the alert thresholds and rules, prioritizing and triaging the alerts based on severity and context, enriching and correlating the alerts with additional data sources, automating or orchestrating repetitive or low-level tasks or actions, or integrating and consolidating different security tools or systems into a unified platform. By reducing analyst alert fatigue and optimizing the alert management process, the effort hopes to achieve a decrease in the MTTR, which is a metric that measures the average time it takes to resolve an incident from the moment it is reported to the moment it is closed. A lower MTTR indicates a faster and more effective incident response process, which can help to minimize the impact and damage of security incidents, improve customer satisfaction and trust, and enhance security operations and outcomes. The other options are not as relevant or realistic as the MTTR decreases by 20%, as they do not reflect the best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve. SIEM ingestion logs are reduced by 20% is not a relevant outcome, as it does not indicate any improvement in the incident response process or any reduction in analyst alert fatigue. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a security solution that collects and analyzes data from various sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. SIEM ingestion logs are records of the data that is ingested by the SIEM system from different sources. Reducing SIEM ingestion logs may imply less data volume or less data sources for the SIEM system, which may not necessarily improve its performance or accuracy. Phishing alerts drop by 20% is not a realistic outcome, as it does not depend on the integration of DLP and CASB or any reduction in analyst alert fatigue. Phishing alerts are notifications that indicate potential phishing attempts or attacks, such as fraudulent emails, websites, or messages that try to trick users into revealing sensitive information or installing malware. Phishing alerts can be generated by various security tools or systems, such as email security solutions, web security solutions, endpoint security solutions, or user awareness training programs. Reducing phishing alerts may imply less phishing attempts or attacks on the organization, which may not necessarily be influenced by the integration of DLP and CASB or any reduction in analyst alert fatigue. False positive rates drop to 20% is not a realistic outcome
質問 # 113
When investigating a potentially compromised host, an analyst observes that the process BGInfo.exe (PID
1024), a Sysinternals tool used to create desktop backgrounds containing host details, has bee running for over two days. Which of the following activities will provide the best insight into this potentially malicious process, based on the anomalous behavior?
- A. Activities taken by PID 1024
- B. Recent browser history of the primary user
- C. Changes to system environment variables
- D. SMB network traffic related to the system process
正解：A
解説：
The activities taken by the process with PID 1024 will provide the best insight into this potentially malicious process, based on the anomalous behavior. BGInfo.exe is a legitimate tool that displays system information on the desktop background, but it can also be used by attackers to gather information about the compromised host or to disguise malicious processes12. By monitoring the activities of PID 1024, such as the files it accesses, the network connections it makes, or the commands it executes, the analyst can determine if the process is benign or malicious.
References: bginfo.exe Windows process - What is it?, What is bginfo.exe? Is it Safe or a Virus? How to remove or fix it
質問 # 114
Each time a vulnerability assessment team shares the regular report with other teams, inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure are discovered. Which of the following is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies?
- A. Implementing a central place to manage IT assets
- B. Implementing credentialed scanning
- C. Changing from a passive to an active scanning approach
- D. Performing agentless scanning
正解：A
解説：
Implementing a central place to manage IT assets is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure. A central place to manage IT assets, such as a configuration management database (CMDB), can help the vulnerability assessment team to have an accurate and up-to-date inventory of all the hardware and software components in the network, as well as their relationships and dependencies. A CMDB can also track the changes and updates made to the IT assets, and provide a single source of truth for the vulnerability assessment team and other teams to compare and verify the versions and patches of the infrastructure12. Implementing credentialed scanning, changing from a passive to an active scanning approach, and performing agentless scanning are all methods to improve the vulnerability scanning process, but they do not address the root cause of the inconsistencies, which is the lack of a central place to manage IT assets3. References: What is a Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?, How to Use a CMDB to Improve Vulnerability Management, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices
質問 # 115
A company's security team is updating a section of the reporting policy that pertains to inappropriate use of resources (e.g., an employee who installs cryptominers on workstations in the office). Besides the security team, which of the following groups should the issue be escalated to first in order to comply with industry best practices?
- A. Help desk
- B. Legal department
- C. Law enforcement
- D. Board member
正解：B
解説：
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Legal department.
According to the CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification exam objectives, one of the tasks for a security analyst is to "report and escalate security incidents to appropriate stakeholders and authorities" 1.
This includes reporting any inappropriate use of resources, such as installing cryptominers on workstations, which may violate the company's policies and cause financial and reputational damage. The legal department is the most appropriate group to escalate this issue to first, as they can advise on the legal implications and actions that can be taken against the employee. The legal department can also coordinate with other groups, such as law enforcement, help desk, or board members, as needed. The other options are not the best choices to escalate the issue to first, as they may not have the authority or expertise to handle the situation properly.
質問 # 116
Which of the following best describes the key elements of a successful information security program?
- A. Senior management organizational structure, message distribution standards, and procedures for the operation of security management systems
- B. Disaster recovery and business continuity planning, and the definition of access control requirements and human resource policies
- C. Business impact analysis, asset and change management, and security communication plan
- D. Security policy implementation, assignment of roles and responsibilities, and information asset classification
正解：D
解説：
A successful information security program consists of several key elements that align with the organization's goals and objectives, and address the risks and threats to its information assets.
Security policy implementation: This is the process of developing, documenting, and enforcing the rules and standards that govern the security of the organization's information assets. Security policies define the scope, objectives, roles, and responsibilities of the security program, as well as the acceptable use, access control, incident response, and compliance requirements for the information assets.
Assignment of roles and responsibilities: This is the process of identifying and assigning the specific tasks and duties related to the security program to the appropriate individuals or groups within the organization. Roles and responsibilities define who is accountable, responsible, consulted, and informed for each security activity, such as risk assessment, vulnerability management, threat detection, incident response, auditing, and reporting.
Information asset classification: This is the process of categorizing the information assets based on their value, sensitivity, and criticality to the organization. Information asset classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection and controls for each asset, as well as the impact and likelihood of a security breach or loss. Information asset classification also facilitates the prioritization of security resources and efforts based on the risk level of each asset.
質問 # 117
During an incident, an analyst needs to acquire evidence for later investigation. Which of the following must be collected first in a computer system, related to its volatility level?
- A. Temporary files
- B. Disk contents
- C. Running processes
- D. Backup data
正解：C
解説：
The most volatile type of evidence that must be collected first in a computer system is running processes. Running processes are programs or applications that are currently executing on a computer system and using its resources, such as memory, CPU, disk space, or network bandwidth. Running processes are very volatile because they can change rapidly or disappear completely when the system is shut down, rebooted, logged off, or crashed. Running processes can also be affected by other processes or users that may modify or terminate them. Therefore, running processes must be collected first before any other type of evidence in a computer system
質問 # 118
A security analyst is trying to detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Which of the following commands should the security analyst consider running?
- A. cat packets.pcap | grep [IP Address]
- B. tcpdump -n -r packets.pcap host [IP address]
- C. strings packets.pcap | grep [IP Address]
- D. grep [IP address] packets.pcap
正解：B
解説：
Explanation
tcpdump is a command-line tool that can capture and analyze network packets from a given interface or file.
The -n option prevents tcpdump from resolving hostnames, which can speed up the analysis. The -r option reads packets from a file, in this case packets.pcap. The host [IP address] filter specifies that tcpdump should only display packets that have the given IP address as either the source or the destination. This command can help the security analyst detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Official References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Sample-CompTIA-CySA-test-questions-with-answers
https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/tmxx84/passed_cysa_heres_my_experience_and_how_i_st
質問 # 119
A security analyst found the following vulnerability on the company's website:<INPUT TYPE="IMAGE" SRC="javascript:alert('test');">
Which of the following should be implemented to prevent this type of attack in the future?
- A. Code obfuscation
- B. Output encoding
- C. Input sanitization
- D. Prepared statements
正解：C
解説：
This is a type of web application vulnerability called cross-site scripting (XSS), which allows an attacker to inject malicious code into a web page that is viewed by other users. XSS can be used to steal cookies, session tokens, credentials, or other sensitive information, or to perform actions on behalf of the victim.
Input sanitization is a technique that prevents XSS attacks by checking and filtering the user input before processing it. Input sanitization can remove or encode any characters or strings that may be interpreted as code by the browser, such as <, >, ", ', or javascript:. Input sanitization can also validate the input against a predefined format or range of values, and reject any input that does not match.
Output encoding is a technique that prevents XSS attacks by encoding the output before sending it to the browser. Output encoding can convert any characters or strings that may be interpreted as code by the browser into harmless entities, such as <, >, ", ', or javascript:. Output encoding can also escape any special characters that may have a different meaning in different contexts, such as , /, or ;.
Code obfuscation is a technique that makes the source code of a web application more difficult to read and understand by humans. Code obfuscation can use techniques such as renaming variables and functions, removing comments and whitespace, replacing literals with expressions, or adding dummy code. Code obfuscation can help protect the intellectual property and trade secrets of a web application, but it does not prevent XSS attacks.
質問 # 120
An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:
Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?
- A. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header.
- B. Set an Http Only flag to force communication by HTTPS.
- C. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header.
- D. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains.
正解：D
解説：
The output shows that the web application has a cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) header that allows any origin to access its resources. This is a security misconfiguration that could allow malicious websites to make requests to the web application on behalf of the user and access sensitive data or perform unauthorized actions.
The tuning recommendation is to configure the Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to only allow authorized domains that need to access the web application's resources. This would prevent unauthorized cross-origin requests and reduce the risk of cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attacks.
質問 # 121
A security alert was triggered when an end user tried to access a website that is not allowed per organizational policy. Since the action is considered a terminable offense, the SOC analyst collects the authentication logs, web logs, and temporary files, reflecting the web searches from the user's workstation, to build the case for the investigation. Which of the following is the best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies?
- A. Create a timeline of events detailinq the date stamps, user account hostname and IP information associated with the activities
- B. Ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information Password protect the evidence and restrict access to personnel related to the investigation
- C. Create a code name for the investigation in the ticketing system so that all personnel with access will not be able to easily identity the case as an HR-related investigation
- D. Notify the SOC manager for awareness after confirmation that the activity was intentional
正解：B
解説：
Explanation
The best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies is to ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information, such as name, email address, phone number, or employee ID. This can help protect the privacy and confidentiality of the user and prevent any potential discrimination or retaliation. Additionally, password protecting the evidence and restricting access to personnel related to the investigation can help preserve the integrity and security of the evidence and prevent any unauthorized or accidental disclosure or modification.
質問 # 122
Each time a vulnerability assessment team shares the regular report with other teams, inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure are discovered. Which of the following is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies?
- A. Implementing a central place to manage IT assets
- B. Implementing credentialed scanning
- C. Changing from a passive to an active scanning approach
- D. Performing agentless scanning
正解：A
解説：
Implementing a central place to manage IT assets is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure. A central place to manage IT assets, such as a configuration management database (CMDB), can help the vulnerability assessment team to have an accurate and up-to-date inventory of all the hardware and software components in the network, as well as their relationships and dependencies. A CMDB can also track the changes and updates made to the IT assets, and provide a single source of truth for the vulnerability assessment team and other teams to compare and verify the versions and patches of the infrastructure12. Implementing credentialed scanning, changing from a passive to an active scanning approach, and performing agentless scanning are all methods to improve the vulnerability scanning process, but they do not address the root cause of the inconsistencies, which is the lack of a central place to manage IT assets3. Reference: What is a Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?, How to Use a CMDB to Improve Vulnerability Management, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices
質問 # 123
A security analyst receives an alert for suspicious activity on a company laptop An excerpt of the log is shown below:
Which of the following has most likely occurred?
- A. An Office document with a malicious macro was opened.
- B. A phishing link in an email was clicked
- C. A credential-stealing website was visited.
- D. A web browser vulnerability was exploited.
正解：A
解説：
An Office document with a malicious macro was opened is the most likely explanation for the suspicious activity on the company laptop, as it reflects the common technique of using macros to execute PowerShell commands that download and run malware. A macro is a piece of code that can automate tasks or perform actions in an Office document, such as a Word file or an Excel spreadsheet. Macros can be useful and legitimate, but they can also be abused by threat actors to deliver malware or perform malicious actions on the system. A malicious macro can be embedded in an Office document that is sent as an attachment in a phishing email or hosted on a compromised website. When the user opens the document, they may be prompted to enable macros or content, which will trigger the execution of the malicious code. The malicious macro can then use PowerShell, which is a scripting language and command-line shell that is built into Windows, to perform various tasks, such as downloading and running malware from a remote URL, bypassing security controls, or establishing persistence on the system. The log excerpt shows that PowerShell was used to download a string from a URL using the WebClient.DownloadString method, which is a common way to fetch and execute malicious code from the internet. The log also shows that PowerShell was used to invoke an expression (iex) that contains obfuscated code, which is another common way to evade detection and analysis.
The other options are not as likely as an Office document with a malicious macro was opened, as they do not match the evidence in the log excerpt. A credential-stealing website was visited is possible, but it does not explain why PowerShell was used to download and execute code from a URL. A phishing link in an email was clicked is also possible, but it does not explain what happened after the link was clicked or how PowerShell was involved. A web browser vulnerability was exploited is unlikely, as it does not explain why PowerShell was used to download and execute code from a URL.
質問 # 124
A company's threat team has been reviewing recent security incidents and looking for a common theme. The team discovered the incidents were caused by incorrect configurations on the impacted systems. The issues were reported to support teams, but no action was taken. Which of the following is the next step the company should take to ensure any future issues are remediated?
- A. Require support teams to develop a corrective control that ensures security failures are addressed once they are identified.
- B. Require support teams to develop a preventive control that ensures new systems are built with the required security configurations.
- C. Require support teams to develop a detective control that ensures they continuously assess systems for configuration errors.
- D. Require support teams to develop a managerial control that ensures systems have a documented configuration baseline.
正解：A
解説：
Requiring support teams to develop a corrective control that ensures security failures are addressed once they are identified is the best step to prevent future issues from being remediated. Corrective controls are actions or mechanisms that are implemented after a security incident or failure has occurred to fix or restore the normal state of the system or network. Corrective controls can include patching, updating, repairing, restoring, or reconfiguring systems or components that were affected by the incident or failure .
質問 # 125
During the log analysis phase, the following suspicious command is detected-
Which of the following is being attempted?
- A. Smurf attack
- B. Buffer overflow
- C. ICMP tunneling
- D. RCE
正解：D
解説：
RCE stands for remote code execution, which is a type of attack that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a target system. The suspicious command in the question is an example of RCE, as it tries to download and execute a malicious file from a remote server using the wget and chmod commands. A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a program writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, potentially overwriting other memory locations and corrupting the program's execution. ICMP tunneling is a technique that uses ICMP packets to encapsulate and transmit data that would normally be blocked by firewalls or filters. A smurf attack is a type of DDoS attack that floods a network with ICMP echo requests, causing all devices on the network to reply and generate a large amount of traffic. Verified References: What Is Buffer Overflow? Attacks, Types & Vulnerabilities - Fortinet1, What Is a Smurf Attack? Smurf DDoS Attack | Fortinet2, exploit - Interpreting CVE ratings: Buffer Overflow vs. Denial of ...3
質問 # 126
Which of the following is the first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan?
- A. Agree on the goals and objectives of the plan
- B. Identity applications to be run during a disaster
- C. Determine the site to be used during a disaster
C Demonstrate adherence to a standard disaster recovery process
正解：A
解説：
The first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan is to agree on the goals and objectives of the plan. The goals and objectives of the plan should define what the plan aims to achieve, such as minimizing downtime, restoring critical functions, ensuring data integrity, or meeting compliance requirements. The goals and objectives of the plan should also be aligned with the business needs and priorities of the organization and be measurable and achievable.
質問 # 127
An incident response team receives an alert to start an investigation of an internet outage. The outage is preventing all users in multiple locations from accessing external SaaS resources. The team determines the organization was impacted by a DDoS attack. Which of the following logs should the team review first?
- A. Web server
- B. DNS
- C. CDN
- D. Vulnerability scanner
正解：B
解説：
A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is a type of cyberattack that aims to overwhelm a target's network or server with a large volume of traffic from multiple sources. A common technique for launching a DDoS attack is to compromise DNS servers, which are responsible for resolving domain names into IP addresses. By flooding DNS servers with malicious requests, attackers can disrupt the normal functioning of the internet and prevent users from accessing external SaaS resources. Official References:
https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/
質問 # 128
Which of the following statements best describes the MITRE ATT&CK framework?
- A. It helps identify and stop enemy activity by highlighting the areas where an attacker functions.
- B. It breaks down intrusions into a clearly defined sequence of phases.
- C. It provides threat intelligence sharing and development of action and mitigation strategies.
- D. It tracks and understands threats and is an open-source project that evolves.
- E. It provides a comprehensive method to test the security of applications.
正解：D
解説：
The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a knowledge base of cybercriminals' adversarial behaviors based on cybercriminals' known tactics, techniques and procedures (TTPs). It helps security teams model, detect, prevent and fight cybersecurity threats by simulating cyberattacks, creating security policies, controls and incident response plans, and sharing information with other security professionals. It is an open-source project that evolves with input from a global community of cybersecurity professionals1. Reference: What is the MITRE ATT&CK Framework? | IBM
質問 # 129
A security analyst needs to ensure that systems across the organization are protected based on the sensitivity of the content each system hosts. The analyst is working with the respective system owners to help determine the best methodology that seeks to promote confidentiality, availability, and integrity of the data being hosted. Which of the following should the security analyst perform first to categorize and prioritize the respective systems?
- A. Configure alerts for vendor-specific zero-day exploits.
- B. Scan the systems to see which vulnerabilities currently exist.
- C. Interview the users who access these systems,
- D. Determine the asset value of each system.
正解：D
解説：
Explanation
Determining the asset value of each system is the best action to perform first, as it helps to categorize and prioritize the systems based on the sensitivity of the data they host. The asset value is a measure of how important a system is to the organization, in terms of its financial, operational, or reputational impact. The asset value can help the security analyst to assign a risk level and a protection level to each system, and to allocate resources accordingly. The other actions are not as effective as determining the asset value, as they do not directly address the goal of promoting confidentiality, availability, and integrity of the data. Interviewing the users who access these systems may provide some insight into how the systems are used and what data they contain, but it may not reflect the actual value or sensitivity of the data from an organizational perspective. Scanning the systems to see which vulnerabilities currently exist may help to identify and remediate some security issues, but it does not help to categorize or prioritize the systems based on their data sensitivity. Configuring alerts for vendor-specific zero-day exploits may help to detect and respond to some emerging threats, but it does not help to protect the systems based on their data sensitivity.
質問 # 130
While reviewing a vulnerability assessment, an analyst notices the following issue is identified in the report:
- A. Obtain a new self-signed certificate and select AES as the hashing algorithm.
- B. Use only signed certificates with cryptographically secure certificate sources.
- C. Reconfigure the device to support only connections leveraging TLSv1.2.
- D. Replace the existing certificate with a certificate that uses only MD5 for signing.
正解：C
解説：
The vulnerability assessment report shows that the device is using SSLv3, which is an outdated and insecure protocol for secure communication over a network. SSLv3 has several known vulnerabilities, such as POODLE, that allow attackers to decrypt or modify the encrypted data. To remediate this issue, the analyst should recommend reconfiguring the device to support only connections leveraging TLSv1.2, which is a newer and more secure protocol that provides stronger encryption, authentication, and integrity protection for the data transmitted over the network.
質問 # 131
A security analyst received a malicious binary file to analyze. Which of the following is the best technique to perform the analysis?
- A. Code analysis
- B. Fuzzing
- C. Reverse engineering
- D. Static analysis
正解：C
解説：
Explanation
Reverse engineering is a technique that involves analyzing a binary file to understand its structure, functionality, and behavior. Reverse engineering can help security analysts perform malware analysis, vulnerability research, exploit development, and software debugging. Reverse engineering can be done using various tools, such as disassemblers, debuggers, decompilers, and hex editors.
質問 # 132
A risk assessment concludes that the perimeter network has the highest potential for compromise by an attacker, and it is labeled as a critical risk environment. Which of the following is a valid compensating control to reduce the volume of valuable information in the perimeter network that an attacker could gain using active reconnaissance techniques?
- A. A control that demonstrates that firewall rules are peer reviewed for accuracy and approved before deployment
- B. A control that demonstrates that the network security policy is reviewed and updated yearly
- C. A control that demonstrates that all systems authenticate using the approved authentication method
- D. A control that demonstrates that access to a system is only allowed by using SSH
正解：A
解説：
A valid compensating control to reduce the volume of valuable information in the perimeter network that an attacker could gain using active reconnaissance techniques is a control that demonstrates that firewall rules are peer reviewed for accuracy and approved before deployment. This control can help ensure that the firewall rules are configured correctly and securely, and that they do not allow unnecessary or unauthorized access to the perimeter network. The other options are not compensating controls or do not address the risk of active reconnaissance. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 14; https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2016/volume-3/compensating-controls
質問 # 133
A security analyst reviews the following Arachni scan results for a web application that stores PII data:
Which of the following should be remediated first?
- A. SQL injection
- B. RFI
- C. Code injection
- D. XSS
正解：A
解説：
SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application. These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries12. SQL injection can have serious consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data exfiltration, or remote code execution34. Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks5. Reference: Web application testing with Arachni | Infosec, How do I create a generated scan report for PDF in Arachni Web ..., Command line user interface * Arachni/arachni Wiki * GitHub, SQL Injection - OWASP, Blind SQL Injection - OWASP, SQL Injection Attack: What is it, and how to prevent it., SQL Injection Cheat Sheet & Tutorial | Veracode
質問 # 134
The analyst reviews the following endpoint log entry:
Which of the following has occurred?
- A. Privilege escalation
- B. New account introduced
- C. Registry change
- D. Rename computer
正解：B
解説：
Explanation
The endpoint log entry shows that a new account named "admin" has been created on a Windows system with a local group membership of "Administrators". This indicates that a new account has been introduced on the system with administrative privileges. This could be a sign of malicious activity, such as privilege escalation or backdoor creation, by an attacker who has compromised the system.
質問 # 135
An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:
Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?
- A. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains
- B. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header
- C. Set an HttpOnlvflaq to force communication by HTTPS
- D. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header
正解：B
解説：
The output shows that the web application is vulnerable to clickjacking attacks, which allow an attacker to overlay a hidden frame on top of a legitimate page and trick users into clicking on malicious links. Blocking requests without an X-Frame-Options header can prevent this attack by instructing the browser to not display the page within a frame.
質問 # 136
Which of the following is the most important reason for an incident response team to develop a formal incident declaration?
- A. To allow for public disclosure of a security event impacting the organization
- B. To require that an incident be reported through the proper channels
- C. To establish the department that is responsible for responding to an incident
- D. To identify and document staff who have the authority to declare an incident
正解：D
解説：
The formal incident declaration is crucial to identify and document the staff who have the authority to declare an incident, ensuring that incidents are handled by authorized personnel. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Incident Response, page 197.
質問 # 137
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