8020試験問題集合格させるのは2025年最新の認証済み試験問題
8020試験問題でリアルに更新された問題PDF
質問 # 29
Under the previous Basel II approach, which was not an approach for operational risk?
- A. Alternative Measurement Approach (AMA).
- B. Basic Indicator Approach (BIA).
- C. The Standardized Approach (TSA).
- D. Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA).
正解：A
解説：
Overview of Basel II Approaches for Operational Risk
Basel II introduced three main approaches to calculating capital requirements for operational risk:
Basic Indicator Approach (BIA)
The Standardized Approach (TSA)
Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA)
Why Answer D is Correct
Alternative Measurement Approach (AMA) is not a recognized Basel II approach.
The correct term under Basel II was Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA).
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Basic Indicator Approach (BIA).
Correct - A simple approach where capital is set as a fixed percentage of gross income.
B . The Standardized Approach (TSA).
Correct - Categorizes operational risk into business lines, each with assigned risk factors.
C . Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA).
Correct - Uses internal models to calculate capital requirements based on loss data, scenario analysis, and risk controls.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
Basel II Framework for Operational Risk (2004)
PRMIA Risk Management Guidelines
質問 # 30
Which of the following is not an action available to management and the governing body to align the strategy with Risk Capacity.
- A. Improve retained earnings - by increasing net income or reducing dividends in order to increase risk capacity.
- B. Reduce retained earning - by increasing dividends in order to return funds to investors and improve reputation.
- C. Reduce scale of risks - shrink balance sheet or activity levels.
- D. Improve quality of risks - pursue lower rewarding risks with better prospects.
正解：B
解説：
Step 1: Aligning Strategy with Risk Capacity
Risk capacity is the maximum level of risk a firm can bear based on financial resources, earnings, and capital structure.
Management can adjust risk capacity by modifying risk exposure, balance sheet size, or earnings retention.
Step 2: Why Option C Is Incorrect
Increasing dividends reduces retained earnings, which lowers capital reserves and reduces risk capacity.
Firms seeking to improve risk capacity should retain earnings, not distribute them.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Correct
Option A ("Reduce scale of risks") → Correct as reducing balance sheet size lowers risk exposure.
Option B ("Improve quality of risks") → Correct as taking on lower-risk assets improves stability.
Option D ("Improve retained earnings") → Correct as more capital increases risk capacity.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Capital Management Framework - Defines risk capacity and earnings retention strategies.
Basel III Capital Standards - Stresses retained earnings as a key factor in risk capacity.
Final Conclusion:
Reducing retained earnings through dividends weakens risk capacity, making Option C the correct answer.
質問 # 31
The acronym ESG can stand for:
- A. Environmental. Social and corporate Governance.
- B. Extra Social Governance.
- C. Enhanced Social Governance.
- D. Environmental. Strategy, and corporate Governance.
正解：A
解説：
Step 1: Definition of ESG
ESG (Environmental, Social, and Corporate Governance) refers to the three core factors used to evaluate a company's sustainability and ethical impact.
ESG is now a key part of risk management, influencing investment decisions, regulatory compliance, and corporate strategy.
Step 2: Breakdown of ESG Components
Environmental (E): Climate change, carbon emissions, resource management.
Social (S): Diversity & inclusion, labor rights, community engagement.
Governance (G): Board structure, executive pay, corporate ethics.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Environmental, Strategy, and Corporate Governance")
Incorrect because Strategy is not part of ESG.
Option C ("Enhanced Social Governance")
Incorrect because ESG covers more than just social governance.
Option D ("Extra Social Governance")
Incorrect as it does not align with the recognized ESG definition.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA ESG Risk Management Guidelines - Defines ESG factors as Environmental, Social, and Governance.
PRI (Principles for Responsible Investment) - Aligns ESG with financial risk management.
質問 # 32
For the National Australia Bank - FX Options case study, large and unusual transaction activity was a concern for what reason?
- A. Deep-in-the-money options and other complex structured transactions aided in the smoothing of profits and losses.
- B. Complex structured transactions aided in the smoothing of losses.
- C. Deep-in-the-money options and other complex structured transactions aided in the smoothing of losses.
- D. Deep-in-the-money options aided in the smoothing of losses.
正解：A
解説：
The National Australia Bank (NAB) FX Options Case Study is a well-known example of operational risk, fraud, and governance failure.
What Happened?
Traders engaged in unauthorized foreign exchange (FX) options trading, using deep-in-the-money options and other complex instruments.
They manipulated profits and losses to smooth earnings and mislead risk managers and auditors.
Why Answer C is Correct
The traders smoothed both profits and losses to avoid detection and ensure continued trading bonuses.
This aligns with PRMIA's Operational Risk Management Guidelines, which highlight that hidden trading losses and smoothing techniques increase financial crime risk.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Complex structured transactions aided in the smoothing of losses.
Incorrect - Smoothing occurred with both profits and losses, not just losses.
B . Deep-in-the-money options and other complex structured transactions aided in the smoothing of losses.
Incorrect - Profits were also manipulated, making this answer incomplete.
D . Deep-in-the-money options aided in the smoothing of losses.
Incorrect - This focuses only on deep-in-the-money options and ignores other structured transactions involved in the fraud.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Fraud and Risk Management Case Studies
Basel Principles on Market Risk and Internal Control Failures
質問 # 33
For the FTX case study, what was the "backdoor" used for?
- A. It allowed a stable coin to be removed from the ledger and added to the balance sheet.
- B. It allowed currency traders to smooth profits and conceal losses for over two years.
- C. It allowed trading firm Alameda to borrow S65 billion of clients' money from the exchange without their permission.
- D. It allowed a rapid pace of acquisitions but poor integration of acquired companies.
正解：C
解説：
The FTX collapse involved fraudulent fund mismanagement, where FTX executives created a "backdoor" to allow Alameda Research (FTX's sister trading firm) to borrow client funds without their consent.
Step 1: The "Backdoor" in FTX
The backdoor was a hidden code in FTX's system, allegedly created by Sam Bankman-Fried, which allowed Alameda to access customer deposits without triggering alerts to auditors or compliance teams.
Alameda used these funds for risky trading strategies and investments, leading to the eventual collapse of FTX when a liquidity crunch exposed the missing funds.
Step 2: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("allowed a stablecoin to be removed from the ledger and added to the balance sheet") Incorrect because FTX's fraud involved misuse of customer funds, not just a stablecoin misclassification.
Option C ("allowed currency traders to smooth profits and conceal losses for over two years") Incorrect because this sounds more like LIBOR-rigging scandals, whereas FTX misappropriated client funds.
Option D ("allowed a rapid pace of acquisitions but poor integration of acquired companies") Incorrect because FTX's collapse was due to financial fraud, not poor acquisition strategy.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Financial Crime Risk Management - Discusses insider risk and fraudulent misappropriation of funds.
FTX Collapse Reports - SEC, CFTC, and DOJ filings confirm that Alameda had unauthorized access to client funds.
Final Conclusion:
FTX's backdoor enabled Alameda to take $65 billion in client funds without permission, making Option B the correct answer.
質問 # 34
For credit risk losses containing operational risk elements that have been historically included in an organizations' credit risk database how should the loss amount be treated?
- A. The entire loss amount is treated as credit risk, but the loss is entered as a memorandum within the operational loss database and not used for capital modeling purposes.
- B. The loss amount is split into credit and operational risk components.
- C. The entire loss amount is treated as credit risk
- D. The entire loss amount is treated as operational risk.
正解：B
解説：
Understanding Credit Risk and Operational Risk Overlap
In some cases, credit risk losses contain elements of operational risk, such as fraud, documentation errors, or IT failures affecting credit transactions.
Basel II and III frameworks require institutions to distinguish between pure credit risk losses and operational risk components within those losses.
Treatment of Losses
The credit-related portion is accounted for under credit risk capital calculations.
The operational risk portion (e.g., fraud-related losses) should be classified separately and included in operational risk databases for risk measurement.
Why Answer C is Correct
Basel III and PRMIA recommend a clear split between credit risk and operational risk components to ensure accurate risk modeling.
If operational risk elements are ignored, an organization may underestimate its true operational risk exposure.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . The entire loss amount is treated as credit risk.
Incorrect - This ignores operational risk components that should be accounted for separately.
B . The entire loss amount is treated as operational risk.
Incorrect - Credit risk losses are typically dominant in lending-related losses and should not be fully classified as operational risk.
D . The entire loss amount is treated as credit risk, but the loss is entered as a memorandum within the operational loss database and not used for capital modeling purposes.
Incorrect - The operational risk portion must be considered for capital modeling, not just recorded as a memo.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
Basel II & III Guidelines on Credit and Operational Risk Integration
PRMIA Operational Risk Framework
質問 # 35
For which of the following reasons did the Turnbull Report have a significant impact on risk governance?
- A. It defined the concept of risk governance for the insurance industry.
- B. It was the first report to require a board to take specific account of risks and control systems for risks.
- C. It was the first report to list the board as a proposed governance structure.
- D. It was a report that led to the establishment of the US Federal Reserve.
正解：B
解説：
Step 1: What Is the Turnbull Report?
The Turnbull Report (1999) was a UK corporate governance report that set risk management expectations for boards.
It required companies to assess and manage risks effectively as part of corporate governance.
Step 2: Why Option C is Correct
Turnbull was the first report to mandate that boards must consider risk management in corporate governance.
This report established risk assessment as a board-level responsibility.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Defined risk governance for insurance") → Incorrect because Turnbull applied to all sectors, not just insurance.
Option B ("First report to propose board structure") → Incorrect because corporate boards existed long before Turnbull.
Option D ("Led to the US Federal Reserve") → Incorrect because the Federal Reserve was established in 1913, long before Turnbull.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Corporate Governance Guidelines - Highlights Turnbull's role in board-level risk oversight.
UK Corporate Governance Code - Turnbull contributed to defining board risk responsibilities.
Final Conclusion:
The Turnbull Report was the first to require boards to consider risks in corporate governance, making Option C the correct answer.
質問 # 36
Which of the follow is not included in PRMIA's 10 principles of good governance?
- A. Holding the PRM Designation.
- B. Clear accountability.
- C. Risk appetite.
- D. External validation.
正解：A
解説：
PRMIA's 10 Principles of Good Governance
PRMIA outlines 10 key principles that focus on risk governance, accountability, transparency, and risk management effectiveness.
These principles ensure strong risk governance structures for financial institutions.
Why Answer B is Correct
Holding the PRM Designation (Professional Risk Manager certification) is NOT a governance principle.
While PRMIA promotes risk education, governance principles focus on organizational risk structures, not individual certifications.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Risk appetite.
Correct - PRMIA governance principles include establishing a clear risk appetite.
C . External validation.
Correct - External audits and validation improve governance and risk transparency.
D . Clear accountability.
Correct - Governance principles emphasize clear accountability at all levels of management.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA 10 Principles of Good Governance
Basel Corporate Governance Guidelines for Financial Institutions
質問 # 37
Ideally, the facilitator of a risk assessment workshop should:
- A. Remain objective and refrain from expressing his or her own opinions.
- B. Attend via a video connection to allow proper distance.
- C. Guide the workshop toward a pre-determined conclusion, based upon known industry identified risks.
- D. Remind the attendees that they can override the results of the workshop once the risks are tallied.
正解：A
解説：
Step 1: Role of a Risk Assessment Facilitator
The facilitator's main role is to guide discussions without bias, ensuring objective risk identification.
PRMIA's Risk Governance Framework highlights neutral facilitation as key to effective risk workshops.
Step 2: Why Option C Is Correct
Objectivity ensures unbiased risk assessment.
Expressing personal opinions can influence risk ratings, leading to distorted outcomes.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Guide the workshop toward a pre-determined conclusion")
Incorrect because risk workshops should discover risks, not confirm pre-set beliefs.
Option B ("Attendees can override results")
Incorrect as risk results should be evidence-based, not subject to override.
Option D ("Attend via video connection")
Incorrect as facilitators must engage actively, making remote facilitation less effective.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Risk Governance Framework - Stresses objectivity in risk assessment facilitation.
PRMIA Risk Identification Best Practices - Encourages unbiased workshops.
Final Conclusion:
Facilitators must remain neutral and objective, making Option C the correct answer.
質問 # 38
Which of the following are the most relevant ways a firm can ensure they are in line with consumer protection?
- A. Treat customers fairly, place customer interests ahead of its own and keep promises to customers
- B. This risk cannot be managed.
- C. Add a consumer protection section to all reports.
- D. Engage with consumers once there are enough complaints.
正解：A
解説：
Definition of Consumer Protection in Risk Management
Consumer protection ensures ethical business practices, transparency, and regulatory compliance.
It builds trust with customers and reduces legal and reputational risks.
Key Principles of Consumer Protection
Treating customers fairly → Ensures honest and ethical financial services.
Prioritizing customer interests → Prevents conflicts of interest and unfair treatment.
Honoring commitments → Strengthens customer confidence and regulatory trust.
Why Answer C is Correct
Following these principles ensures regulatory compliance, customer satisfaction, and risk mitigation.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Engage with consumers once there are enough complaints.
Incorrect - Proactive engagement is essential; waiting for complaints is a reactive and poor risk management approach.
B . Add a consumer protection section to all reports.
Incorrect - Documentation alone does not ensure fair treatment; actions matter more.
D . This risk cannot be managed.
Incorrect - Consumer protection risks can and should be actively managed.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Consumer Protection & Fair Treatment Standards
Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) Consumer Duty Guidelines
質問 # 39
Internal loss data (ILD) consists of what kind of data?
- A. It consists of historical operational loss incidents of a bank.
- B. It consists of near miss operational loss incidents of a bank.
- C. It consists of scenario data develeloped to calcuate the future operational loss incidents of a bank.
- D. It consists of the Key Risk Indicators of a bank.
正解：A
解説：
Definition of Internal Loss Data (ILD)
Internal Loss Data (ILD) refers to historical records of actual operational losses incurred by a bank.
These losses are used for risk assessment, capital calculations, and trend analysis under Basel III's Operational Risk Framework.
Key Characteristics of ILD
Captures actual past loss events, such as fraud, system failures, and compliance breaches.
Supports the identification of risk trends and weak control areas.
Used for operational risk capital modeling, along with external loss data and scenario analysis.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . It consists of near miss operational loss incidents of a bank.
Incorrect - ILD captures actual losses, while near misses are reported separately.
C . It consists of the Key Risk Indicators of a bank.
Incorrect - KRIs are forward-looking risk metrics, while ILD focuses on historical data.
D . It consists of scenario data developed to calculate the future operational loss incidents of a bank.
Incorrect - ILD is historical, whereas scenario data is used for predictive analysis.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
Basel III & PRMIA Operational Risk Data Framework
PRMIA Risk Management Standards for ILD
質問 # 40
Confidence Accounting can be defined as:
- A. An approach that encourages companies and audit firms to use ranges, rather than discrete numbers, for major accounting entries.
- B. An approach that encourages companies and audit firms to stop using figures and maths.
- C. An approach that encourages companies and audit firms to use regular statements in their Al software.
- D. An approach that encourages companies and audit firms to have diverse boards.
正解：A
解説：
Definition of Confidence Accounting
Confidence Accounting challenges traditional accounting by introducing probability distributions and ranges rather than fixed numbers for financial reporting.
This approach improves transparency and risk awareness by acknowledging uncertainty in financial figures.
Why Answer B is Correct
Encourages using ranges (confidence intervals) instead of discrete values to better reflect uncertainty.
Used in risk-sensitive industries where financial estimates vary due to external factors (e.g., credit risk, market fluctuations).
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . An approach that encourages companies and audit firms to have diverse boards.
Incorrect - Board diversity is unrelated to Confidence Accounting.
C . An approach that encourages companies and audit firms to use regular statements in their AI software.
Incorrect - AI may use probability models, but Confidence Accounting is an accounting methodology, not an AI approach.
D . An approach that encourages companies and audit firms to stop using figures and maths.
Incorrect - Confidence Accounting still relies on mathematical models; it does not eliminate numerical analysis.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Financial Risk Reporting Standards
IFRS (International Financial Reporting Standards) Guidelines on Probability-Based Accounting
質問 # 41
What are some of the properties of Bottom-Up KRIs?
- A. Selected by local management, based on key controls or weaknesses identified by audit reports, reported on quarterly.
- B. Selected by local management: tied to internal loss events at the legal entity, country, business and / or product level, reported daily, weekly or monthly.
- C. Seated by senior management: tied to internal loss events at the legal entity, country, business and / or product level, reported.
daily, weekly or monthly. - D. Are not used due to changes in regulations.
正解：B
解説：
Definition of Bottom-Up KRIs
Bottom-Up Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) are identified at the operational level, focusing on localized risks within business units.
They are tied to actual internal loss events and reported frequently (daily, weekly, or monthly) to capture ongoing trends.
Key Properties of Bottom-Up KRIs
Selected by local management → Ensures relevance to specific business areas.
Tied to internal loss events → Helps in tracking risk patterns within specific legal entities, countries, or business units.
Reported frequently → Allows for timely risk detection and mitigation.
Why Answer D is Correct
Bottom-up KRIs focus on localized risk exposure and are monitored frequently to track operational changes.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Seated by senior management: tied to internal loss events at the legal entity, country, business, and/or product level, reported daily, weekly, or monthly.
Incorrect - Senior management sets top-down KRIs, while bottom-up KRIs are managed locally.
B . Selected by local management, based on key controls or weaknesses identified by audit reports, reported quarterly.
Incorrect - While audit reports are useful, bottom-up KRIs are based on loss events, not just audit findings. Quarterly reporting is too infrequent.
C . Are not used due to changes in regulations.
Incorrect - Bottom-up KRIs remain essential despite regulatory changes.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Risk Indicator Best Practices
Basel Committee's Risk Measurement and Reporting Guidelines
質問 # 42
In relation to financial crime. OFAC is a definition for which organization?
- A. Office of Foreigner and other Control.
- B. Office for Asset Control.
- C. Office of Foreign Asset Control.
- D. Office of Financial Asset Control.
正解：C
解説：
Step 1: Understanding OFAC
OFAC (Office of Foreign Assets Control) is a U.S. Treasury Department agency responsible for enforcing economic and trade sanctions based on U.S. foreign policy and national security goals.
It prevents financial crime by restricting transactions with sanctioned individuals, entities, and countries.
Step 2: Role of OFAC in Financial Crime Prevention
OFAC administers sanctions to prevent money laundering, terrorism financing, and other illicit activities.
Financial institutions must comply with OFAC regulations to avoid heavy fines and reputational damage.
PRMIA's Financial Crime Risk Guidelines emphasize the importance of OFAC compliance in risk management.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Office of Financial Asset Control") - Incorrect wording; OFAC deals with foreign assets, not just financial assets.
Option B ("Office of Foreigner and Other Control") - OFAC does not regulate foreigners broadly; it targets specific foreign assets and transactions.
Option C ("Office for Asset Control") - Missing "Foreign", which is critical to OFAC's function.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Financial Crime Risk Management Guidelines - Emphasizes regulatory compliance with OFAC.
PRMIA Compliance and Sanctions Risk Standards - Stresses the role of OFAC in preventing illicit financial activities.
Final Conclusion:
OFAC stands for the Office of Foreign Assets Control, making Option D the correct answer.
質問 # 43
Which of the following statements best defines the properties of top-down key risk indicators?
- A. Selected by senior management, used to manage changes in the business environment especially under periods of stress, and reported on a daily basis.
- B. Selected by junior management, used to manage changes in the business environment especially under periods of stress, and reported on an annual basis
- C. Can only be selected by the board in line with risk ratings.
- D. Selected by senior management, tied to material external and internal loss exposures and scenarios, and used to manage changes in the business environment, especially under periods of stress.
正解：D
解説：
Definition of Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)
KRIs are quantitative metrics used to monitor risk levels and detect early warning signs of potential risk events.
Top-down KRIs are identified at the senior management level and focus on enterprise-wide risk exposure.
Key Properties of Top-Down KRIs
Selected by senior management to ensure alignment with strategic objectives.
Tied to material external and internal loss exposures to capture critical financial, operational, and strategic risks.
Used to manage changes in the business environment to ensure proactive risk response, especially under stress conditions.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
B . Selected by senior management, used to manage changes in the business environment, especially under periods of stress, and reported on a daily basis.
Incorrect - Top-down KRIs are not reported daily; they are monitored periodically (e.g., quarterly).
C . Selected by junior management, used to manage changes in the business environment, especially under periods of stress, and reported on an annual basis.
Incorrect - Junior management does not define top-down KRIs; senior management does. Also, annual reporting is too infrequent.
D . Can only be selected by the board in line with risk ratings.
Incorrect - The board provides oversight, but senior risk management selects KRIs, not just the board.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Risk Indicator Guidelines
Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) Principles for Effective Risk Data Aggregation
質問 # 44
Managing financial crime is a part of risk and compliance for many firms. Which of the following is a useful control to help reduce this risk?
- A. The requirements to trace all transactions when they are entered into spreadsheets.
- B. Development of scenarios and red flags that are used to monitor transactions and identify suspicious customers and activities.
- C. Local regulations that allow a bank to not report transactions by family members of the board.
- D. Having the business be a cash only business and not report any transactions.
正解：B
解説：
Financial Crime Risk Management
Managing financial crime requires implementing controls, monitoring, and reporting systems to detect and prevent illegal activities.
Developing red flags and monitoring scenarios allows firms to detect suspicious transactions related to money laundering, fraud, and terrorist financing.
Why Answer C is Correct
PRMIA emphasizes that effective risk management requires proactive monitoring of transactions using red flags, transaction patterns, and anomaly detection systems.
This is aligned with Anti-Money Laundering (AML) and Counter-Terrorism Financing (CTF) regulatory requirements.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Having the business be a cash-only business and not report any transactions.
Incorrect - Cash-only businesses with no reporting are high-risk for financial crime.
B . The requirements to trace all transactions when they are entered into spreadsheets.
Incorrect - While transaction tracing is important, spreadsheets alone are not an effective control mechanism for financial crime.
D . Local regulations that allow a bank to not report transactions by family members of the board.
Incorrect - This would violate AML and financial crime regulations, increasing corruption risk.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Financial Crime and AML Risk Guidelines
Basel Committee on Financial Crime and Money Laundering
質問 # 45
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